How many runs can a single player score in a one day match (50 overs/300 balls) without extras? What are the maximum runs?
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Shrey Shah, cricket buff, tennis freak, football lover, u can say my blood group is sports+
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Theroticaly the actual answer is infinite. Let me justify this with a true incident.
286 runs in a single ball.
It was Western Australia playing against Victoria in an Australian First Class match, way back in 1894. The first ball of the match was a heavy strike by the batsman into a three-pronged branch of a tall Jarrah tree which was inside the field. The home team appealed for lost ball because it was absolutely out of the reach by hand. But, the umpires disagreed because it was in sight which meant it could not be lost, and everybody could see the exact place where the ball actually got stuck. But, the intelligent batsmen didn’t stop running between the wickets for making as many runs as possible. When the West Australians sent for an axe to cut down the tree, no axe was obtainable. Then, the team came up with a brilliant idea, and somebody from the home team brought out a rifle and tried to shoot the ball from the tree. After several attempts, the ball was finally dislodged by a bullet of that rifle from the tree and it fell onto the outfield. No one from the fielders was even bothered to catch it out of their frustration. And, by the time the ball traveled back to the wicket-keeper, the super intelligent and hardworking opening pair for Victoria completed running between the wickets 286 times. When 286 runs were given by the umpire, Victoria declared their first inning. That again made a record for the fewest balls played in one inning. Later, Victoria won the match.
The same news was published in the Inquirer & Commercial News in Perth on 2nd March, 1894 and even traveled far to the US, when the Lowell Daily Sun in Massachusetts published the news later as a fact on 15th May in the same year. But, some controversies rose up when the Western Mail in Perth referring to it as ‘that enormous fairy tale’ and published a story about the imaginative mind of the Pall Mall Gazette behind 286 runs scored in a single ball. While no other local newspaper published the story before the Pall Mall Gazette, it was a bit ridiculous to believe the news they published in UK first while the match was played in Australia. So, it is technically very challenging to prove the reality behind the story.
Because of the shortage of evidence, this record couldn’t make it to the Guinness Book of World Records. But, what is the current record? It is one ball for 17 by Garry Chapman in a club match in Australia. The Banyule CC website features a collection from the club’s history written by Chapman himself, where he wrote, “Vinny umpired against Macleod as Borrie and I ran, walked and, finally, staggered our way to the world record of 17 runs from a single ball (p. 247 Guinness Book of Records 1992). We were enjoying ourselves. ‘Twelve…’ we’d shout as we headed back for another. “Thirteen…” and so on. At the end of it all Vinny had the final say. He turned to the scorers and, in his wonderful Yorkshire voice, he announced, ‘Scorers, that be seventeen!’ He turned to me and confided, ‘Aven’t got signal for seventeen!’ He then proceeded to lecture the Macleod blokes on the intricacies of the Lost Ball rule.”
I actually dont know if the rules in the books are rewritten, however I would say a batsman can score infinite no. Of runs therotically though its not feasible.
Its mentioned in the rule book (chapter 18, very first rule) that a player can run infinite number of runs between wickets.
Updated 31 Mar • View Upvotes
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Ayush Srivastava, I'm a Gentleman too, if it's a Gentlemen's Game.
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Thanks for A2A
I will take two situations( I'll try to keep it as realistic as possible )
One is where a single batsman is only scoring out of the two batsmen on the pitch.Second is both batsmen play equal overs/equal balls(I know question is for a single player but as I told, a little realistic I have to be)
I will consider few constraints-
-It's a real match between any two teams. Players will field the way they do and the batsmen is generally able to take 3 runs at most unless there's a overthrow(which can't be considered because of no extras).
According to First situation if only one of them scores, then going by the constraints he will score 33 runs(5 sixes + 3 runs b/w the wickets) in a single over. Since he gets the strike every time he plays all the overs. So max runs scored are- 33*49+36(in last over)=1653 runs
According to second situation both make runs playing equal overs. So exactly both play 25 overs each and hit 36 runs of every over. Now max runs scored by single player are 36*25= 900 runs
Every answer for this question suits or reminds us of EA CRICKET
Written 9 Apr
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Quora User
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A2A.
a. Am not a huge cricket buff
b. I am going to ignore the concept of overthrows in this answer which would otherwise make the answer infinity
Ideally (and very theoretically speaking, practically impossible) a batsman could hit sixes in each of the first five balls of an over, and take three runs on the last ball (I am not considering 5/7+ runs in a ball without overthrows and other complications), so that he gets the strike back in the next over. At this rate, he will score 33*49 = 1617 + 36 (All sixes in the last over) = 1653 (lol!) runs by the end of the innings, and that will be the total score of the team, with his opening partner yet to open his account at 0*.
Edit: Thanks for the edit suggestion Mayur Sawant (Last over 36 runs). Smart thinking indeed! Sorry I missed that point earlier. :)
Updated 6 Aug 2014 • View Upvotes
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Ashish Jindal, Co-creator of Loqation | Cofounder CodeYeti.in
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Infinite.
Batsman can run as many runs between the wickets.
Is there a limit of 4 runs a batsman can score by running in one dilivery? Or can they run more than 4? - Yahoo Answers
rules - What is the maximum runs allowed to take by running between the wickets? - Sports Stack Exchange
Written 3 Aug 2014 • View Upvotes
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Kiran DS, kirands@yahoo.com
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A batsman can score a maximum of 1653 runs in a ODI innings of 50 overs, assuming not a single no-ball is bowled. Let us assume the batsman is Rohit Sharma. He takes strike, hits the first five balls for sixes, takes three off the sixth ball and retains the strike for the second over. He does exactly the same on 49 occasions. So that is 33 times 49 which is equal to 1617 runs. Off the 50th over he hits six sixes and completes the innings. Rohit Sharma will remain undefeated on 1653 and his partner, let us say Ajinkya Rahane, stays undefeated on zero, not having faced a single ball. We are making some ridiculous, hypothetical assumptions here:
1. Rohit Sharma can do whatever he pleases to do, hitting sixes at will and taking three runs off the last ball of every over, except the 50th over.
2. No overthrows happen.
3. Not a single no-ball is bowled throughout the innings.
Written 15 Nov 2014 •
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